Ok, I've been thinking about this. I don't think there's a clear cut yes or no on this question. Just as there are many reasons for an annulment I think each case would have to be looked at. For example, let's say Dirk and I get married. I marry in good fatih, etc... However Dirk was married in England and never got divorced before he came to the States and hid that fact from me, the Church, the law, etc... Obviously Dirk was fully aware that he was not being honest in his marriage vows whereas I was. So im my opinion, and that's just what is it, I would say that yes, he was fornicating but I wasn't. Does that make sense? I think just as there are many reasons for annulments and each annulment has to be looked at individually I think that would also apply to your question. There are not necessarily quick answers as to whether or not a marriage can be annuled, it has to go to a tribunal, etc...so it would follow that your question would have to be answered in accordance with the specifics of the actual annulment.